MKT 506 Week 7 Assignment 3 – Strayer

MKT 506 Week 7 Assignment 3 – Strayer

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Assignment 3: Media Advertising
Due Week 7 and worth 130 points

Assume you are performing your due diligence to develop an advertising approach for a product you think will best be served by using social media.

Part I: Identify the product and what form of social media you would use to advertise this media.

Part II: Create a checklist you would follow to deploy this ad.

Part III: Close the loop
• In bullet format, provide three (3) risks associated with the approach you selected.
• Then, identify what selling tactic would best align with your goals.
• In two (2) paragraphs, describe how advertising on the Internet could lead to profitability.

Your assignment must follow these formatting requirements:
• Be typed, double spaced, using Times New Roman font (size 12), with one-inch margins on all sides; citations and references must follow APA or school-specific format. Check with your professor for any additional instructions.
• Include a cover page containing the title of the assignment, the student’s name, the professor’s name, the course title, and the date. The cover page and the reference page are not included in the required assignment page length.

The specific course learning outcomes associated with this assignment are:
• Evaluate the various forms of media and determine an effective mix to achieve a firm’s marketing objectives.
• Use technology and information resources to research issues in integrated marketing communications.
• Write clearly and concisely about integrated marketing communications using proper writing mechanics.

BUS 230 Week 7 Quiz – Strayer

BUS 230 Week 7 Quiz – Strayer

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CHAPTER 9

Delivery


44. One of the advantages of integrated carriers (truck-air) like UPS and Federal Express is that they:

a. utilize commercial airlines for air service.
b. outsource much of their air network..
c. own their own aircraft.
d. rely more on air than ground transportation.
e. outsource much of their ground network.

45. Outsourcing or using third party logistics services has:

a. remained flat due to increased challenges of international logistics.
b. become increasingly popular with small organizations, but not large ones.
c. declined in popularity due to declining service provider performance.
d. declined as transportation has been re-regulated.
e. increased as organizations focus on core competencies.

46. Organizations operating under a just-in-time system, require:

i. international coverage.
ii. heightened security.
iii. lowest price.
iv. on-time deliveries.
v. real-time package tracking.  
 
47. When assessing the quality of a telecommunications provider, a key indicator of superior quality to a competitor is the ability to:

a. own and operate the largest network of land and sea cable.
b. compress more high resolution information on the same bandwidth.
c. have the leanest network of repeater stations.
d. have the most extensive intermodal operations.
e. own radio frequencies with greater range.

48.Fuel efficiency and energy consumption considerations:

a. have no impact on transportation strategy in most organizations.
b. are a factor in transportation strategy development in many organizations.
c. encourage shippers to focus on increasing LTL shipments.
d. lead to disintermediation in the supply chain.
e. result in lower use of third party logistics providers.

49. Over the past two decades, logistics costs as a percent of the U.S. gross domestic product (GDP) have:

a. been extremely volatile due to international events.
b. increased due to transportation deregulation and technology investments.
c. declined due to deregulation, technology investment, and e-commerce.
d. doubled due to growth in international sourcing.
e. remained constant due to a stagnant global economy.

50. When selecting freight carriers, buyers are most concerned with:

a. best overall value.
b. intermodal capabilities.
c. supply chain and delivery speed.
d. geographic coverage.
e. shipment security.
 
51. Transportation rates:

a. are established primarily through negotiation.
b. are established primarily by government regulation.
c. are lower for LTL than TL shipments.
d. typically decrease as delivery speed increases.
e. typically do not change when smaller shipments are consolidated.

52. Supply’s involvement in transportation decisions is:

a. insignificant and declining due to the growth of supply chain management.
b. growing due to the increase in the number of railroads and trucking companies throughout the world..
c. growing due to the deterioration of roads, bridges, and highways in North America.
d. declining due to the growth of outsourcing transportation decisions to third party logistics providers.
e. growing in terms of direct functional responsibility and cross-functional efforts to devise solutions with logistics services providers.

10. The selection of the FOB point is important to the purchaser, for it determines:

a. who pays the carrier.
b. when legal title to goods being shipped passes to the buyer.
c. who is responsible for preparing and pursuing loss or damage claims.
d. who routes the freight.
e. all of the above.



True and False

1. The bill of lading is the key document in the movement of goods.

2. One of the advantages of shipping by air carrier is that it is inexpensive compared to other modes of transportation.
3. One of the disadvantages of intermodal frieght services is higher damage rates due to more handling.

4. Transportation costs increase as distance, quantity, and speed increase.

5. Third-party logistics service providers are carriers that always own assets (trucks, airplanes, railcars) and act as intermediaries between trading partners, for example, shippers and carriers.

6. When contracting with logistics services providers, supply managers are limited by Federal regulations in their use of standard supply techniques such as negotiation, systems contracts, and supplier evalaution.

7. Carriers for RF waves are air, copper wire and fiberoptic cable.

8. Two effective cost reduction strategies are partnering agreements with logistics services provider and long-term contracts.

9. Radio frequency (RF) waves are a mode of transportation for information.

10. A mode of transportation is any means of conveyance (truck, auto, taxi, bus, railroad, ship, airplane) of people or property.

ECO 450 Week 7 Quiz – Strayer

ECO 450 Week 7 Quiz – Strayer

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Quiz 5 Chapter 10

CHAPTER 10
Introduction to
Government Finance
TRUE/FALSE QUESTIONS
1. Taxes simultaneously ration and finance government goods and services.
2. The federal government finances only half of its expenditures with taxes.
3. The benefit principle argues that the means of financing government goods and services should be linked to the benefits received from those goods and services.
4. Horizontal equity is achieved when individuals of the same economic capacity pay the same amount of taxes over a given period.
5. A flat-rate income tax is a proportional tax on an income base.
6. The marginal tax rate will eventually exceed the average tax rate if the tax rate structure is propor¬tional.
7. The marginal tax rate for a payroll tax is 7 percent on all wages up to $60,000 per year. The marginal tax rate for wages in excess of $60,000 per year is zero. The payroll tax is therefore a regressive tax.
8. Tax evasion would be less of a problem if tax rates were lowered.
9. The user charge for a congestible public good should be zero at all times.
10. Zero prices for price-excludable government services provide benefits only to the poor.
11. The gasoline tax is an example of a general tax on consumption.
12. For a proportional tax, the marginal tax rate is always equal to the average tax rate.
13. Tax avoidance is an illegal activity in the United States.
14. An increase in marginal tax rates is likely to increase tax evasion.
15. Most studies indicate that state-run lotteries are equivalent to a progressive tax on gambling.
16. Government activity requires the reallocation of resources from government to private use.
17. A flat income tax (i.e. a fixed amount paid by every taxpayer) is an example of a selective tax.
18. The average tax rate and marginal tax rate are the same under a progressive tax rate structure.  
MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS
1. According to the benefit principle,
a. taxes should be distributed according to ability to pay.
b. user charges are an ideal source of finance for government goods and services.
c. the progressive income tax represents the ideal way of distributing taxes among citizens.
d. flat-rate taxes are always the best kind.
2. If horizontal equity is achieved in taxation,
a. vertical equity will also be achieved.
b. individuals of equal economic capacity will pay equal taxes.
c. a flat-rate tax will be used.
d. the tax system will not result in losses in efficiency in markets.
3. The tax base of a payroll tax is:
a. consumer expenditures.
b. interest income.
c. labor income.
d. both (b) and (c)
4. A 5-percent retail sales tax on all consumer purchases in a state is imposed. The sales tax is:
a. a flat-rate tax.
b. a tax with a regressive rate structure.
c. levied on an income base.
d. all of the above
5. A tax on the value of real estate holdings is a:
a. selective tax on wealth.
b. general tax on wealth.
c. general tax on income.
d. selective tax on income.
6. An excise tax is a:
a. general consumption tax.
b. selective consumption tax.
c. general wealth tax.
d. selective tax on wealth.

7. A proportional income tax has an average tax rate that:
a. always is less than the marginal tax rate.
b. always exceeds the marginal tax rate.
c. equals the marginal tax rate at first and then becomes less than the marginal tax rate.
d. always equals the marginal tax rate.
8. A payroll tax taxes a worker’s wages at 14 percent until the worker earns $60,000 per year. All labor earnings in excess of $60,000 are not subject to tax. The tax rate structure of the payroll tax is therefore:
a. proportional.
b. progressive.
c. regressive.
d. flat-rate.
9. A bridge becomes congested after 100 vehicles per hour use it on any day. To achieve efficiency, a toll:
a. that charges all users of the bridge, no matter how many vehicles use it per hour, should be imposed.
b. on additional users in excess of 100 per hour should be imposed.
c. on all users should be imposed, if more than 100 users per hour are expected.
d. is not required.
10. A government prints money to finance its expenditures. As a result,
a. the economy can operate at a point outside its production possibility curve.
b. inflation will occur.
c. consumers will give up private goods to finance the increased government expenditures.
d. both (b) and (c)
11. Taxes are likely to affect:
a. market equilibrium.
b. political equilibrium.
c. the distribution of income.
d. all of the above
12. Taxes:
a. are voluntary payments to governments.
b. are unlikely to affect market supply and demand.
c. never affect efficiency in the allocation of resources.
d. are compulsory payments associated with certain activities.
13. A tax on real estate is a:
a. general wealth tax.
b. general consumption tax.
c. selective wealth tax.
d. selective income tax.
14. The marginal tax rate will eventually exceed the average tax rate for a:
a. proportional tax.
b. regressive tax.
c. progressive tax.
d. flat-rate tax.
15. Marginal tax rates were reduced in 2001. Other things being equal, this is likely to:
a. increase tax evasion.
b. decrease tax evasion.
c. have no effect on tax evasion.
d. increase tax avoidance.

16. What is an example of a normative criterion that a government must trade-off in its method of
taxation?
a. Equity
b. Efficiency
c. Administrative ease
d. all of the above
17. Tax avoidance is:
a. a means of tax evasion.
b. a means of decreasing taxes paid by adjusting behavior.
c. a political process explicitly for the reduction of taxation.
d. a means to avoid tax owed.
18. If the marginal tax rate is 20% under a proportional tax rate structure, the average tax rate:
a. should be 20%.
b. should be above 20%.
c. should be below 20%.
d. cannot be determined.
19. If the average tax rate under a progressive tax rate structure is 35%, a possible marginal tax rate is:
a. 30%.
b. 25%.
c. 42%.
d. not able to be determined.
20. Which of the following countries has the highest average tax rate relative to GDP?
a. Japan
b. Sweden
c. Iceland
d. United Kingdom

BUS 335 Week 7 Quiz– Strayer

BUS 335 Week 7 Quiz– Strayer

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Chapter 8 and 9
Student: ___________________________________________________________________________
1. External selection refers to the assessment and evaluation of external job applicants. 
True    False

2. Cost should not be used to guide the choice of initial assessment methods. 
True    False

3. Job analysis sometimes finds that seemingly unrelated jobs may have more in common than would be expected by relying just on job titles. 
True    False

4. The logic of prediction indicates that a point-to-point comparison needs to be made between requirements of the job to be filled and the qualifications of the job applicants. 
True    False

5. A power test is used when the speed of work is an important part of the job. 
True    False

6. The first step in developing a selection plan is to list relevant KSAOs associated with a job. 
True    False

7. The process of translating the results of a job analysis into actual predictors to be used for selection is known as a discriminant validity study. 
True    False

8. Organizations are increasingly finding that the costs of developing a selection plan outweigh the benefits. 
True    False

9. A finalist is someone who has not yet received an offer, but who possesses the minimum qualifications to be considered for further assessment. 
True    False

10. Contingent methods mean that the job offer is subject to certain qualifications, such as the offer receiver passing a medical exam or a drug test. 
True    False

11. Within the context of the selection process, the "logic of prediction" means that: 
A. indicators of an applicant's future performance are predictive of likely job performance
B. indicators of a person's degree of success in past situations should be predictive of future job success
C. predictors of job performance are correlated with KSAOs
D. indicators of job outcomes can be used to predict job performance

12. Which of the following is necessary for the logic of prediction to work in practice for selecting employees? 
A. the organization has adopted a thorough competency modeling approach
B. qualifications carry over from one job to another
C. that each candidate is assessed based on his or her unique experiences
D. anonymous periodic reviews of applicant files to ensure accuracy

13. If the correctness of a response is essential for a job, then a(n) ________ test should be used. 
A. essay
B. speed
C. power
D. objective

14. Essay tests are best used to assess ___________ skills. 
A. oral communication
B. written communication
C. interpersonal
D. none of the above

15. The most accurate description of the basic purpose of a selection plan is ______________. 
A. a selection plan determines the means for attracting qualified job applicants
B. a selection plan matches applicants to outcome criteria
C. a selection plan describes predictors to be used to assess KSAOs required to perform the job
D. a selection plan consists of interview rating criteria

16. The strength of the relationship between a predictor and performance is called ________. 
A. reliability
B. validity
C. utility
D. instrumentality

17. Most initial assessment methods have _________ validity. 
A. moderate to low
B. high to very high
C. moderately high to high
D. moderate

18. Which of the following statements regarding the development of a selection plan is false? 
A. The list of KSAOs used in the selection plan are derived from the job requirements matrix
B. The process of developing a selection plan is usually straightforward and can be done quickly
C. One reason KSAOs may be deemed unimportant for selection is because they will be learned on the job
D. Possible methods for assessing every identified job-relevant KSAO need to be developed

19. A major problem with resumes and cover letters is lying. 
True    False

20. Although employers can outsource résumé collection to résumé-tracking services, in practice this type of outsourcing is too inefficient to be worth the cost. 
True    False

21. Résumé scanning software tends to look for nouns more than action verbs. 
True    False

22. Video résumés have become a major component of selection in most large organizations. 
True    False

23. To protect an employer from charges of unfair discrimination, it is best to only include information related to KSAOs demonstrated as important to the job on an application blank. 
True    False

24. Research has found that level of education is moderately related to job performance. 
True    False

25. College grades are more valid predictors of job performance than high school grades. 
True    False

26. Research suggests that the quality of the school a person graduates from makes a difference in the labor market. 
True    False

27. Occupational certifications are nearly all regulated by the Department of Labor to ensure that they accurately reflect job knowledge. 
True    False

28. Occupational certification helps guard against the misuse of job titles in human resource selection. 
True    False

29. Scored evaluations of unweighted application blanks are good predictors of job performance. 
True    False

30. The validity evidence for weighted application blanks is better than that for unweighted application blanks. 
True    False

31. Most organizations use only weighted application blanks for initial screening decisions. 
True    False

32. The principal assumption behind the use of biodata in selection processes is the axiom, "the best predictor of future behavior is past behavior." 
True    False

33. Biodata refers to medical or physiological tests of applicants prior to hiring. 
True    False

34. Biodata is like a background check in many ways, but background checks tend to focus on external references rather than applicant surveys. 
True    False

35. Biodata items are generally the same, regardless of the job being staffed. 
True    False

36. Research suggests that biodata does not provide incremental validity over personality and cognitive ability. 
True    False

37. Research on the reliability and validity of biodata has been quite positive. 
True    False

38. Biographical information tends to have low reliability. 
True    False

39. Research shows that applicants have a favorable attitude toward biodata inventories. 
True    False

40. Letters of recommendation are an excellent way to help organizations separate highly qualified from moderately qualified applicants. 
True    False

41. One study that showed there was a stronger correlation between two letters written by one person for two different applicants than between two different people writing letters for the same person. 
True    False

42. The most common person to be contacted in a reference check is the applicant's former colleagues who worked in the same position. 
True    False

43. Many organizations are reluctant to give out detailed reference information regarding their former employees because they are afraid of being sued. 
True    False

44. Surveys suggest that only 3 out of 10 organizations conduct reference checks. 
True    False

45. The proportion of organizations that conduct pre-hire background checks to determine if employees have criminal records or inaccurate reporting on résumés, has risen dramatically in recent years. 
True    False

46. Genetic screening is becoming a valuable component of many organizations' selection systems. 
True    False

47. The purpose of the initial interview is to screen out the most obvious cases of person/job mismatches. 
True    False

48. The initial interview is the least expensive method of initial assessment. 
True    False

49. Initial interviews can be made more useful by asking the same questions of all job applicants. 
True    False

50. Most initial assessment methods have moderate to low validity. 
True    False

51. The most frequently used methods of initial assessment are education level, training and experience, reference checks, and initial interview. 
True    False

52. Level of education requirements have little adverse impact against minority applicants. 
True    False

53. Which of the following is(are) initial assessment methods? 
A. Résumés and cover letters
B. Application blanks
C. Biographical information
D. All of the above

54. Which of the following are common sources of résumé fraud? 
A. inflated titles
B. inflated education or "purchased" degrees
C. inaccurate dates to cover up job hopping or unemployment
D. all of the above

55. Which of the following statements regarding résumés is true? 
A. Even background checks cannot reduce the problem of résumé fraud
B. Most surveys suggest that around half of all résumés have substantial inaccuracies or distortions
C. Video résumés are highly respected by most employers
D. Extensive evidence suggests that résumés are highly accurate predictors of employee job performance

56. In using educational level as an initial selection criterion, which of the following statements is false? 
A. The degree received from an institution is not sufficient as a sole indicator of an applicant's level of education.
B. A GED is a high school equivalency degree and is about as good as a conventional high school diploma in predicting job performance.
C. Educational level is a predictor of job performance.
D. High-level degrees from non-accredited schools may be indicators of lesser accomplishment than lower-level degrees from accredited schools.

57. Which of the following statements regarding the use of grade point averages as a predictor is true? 
A. GPA may be influenced by many factors in addition to the applicant's KSAOs and motivation.
B. GPAs in one's major tend to be highly similar to one's GPAs in other classes.
C. Grades do not vary widely by field.
D. GPAs from different schools mean the same thing.

BUS 599 Week 7 Discussion Question – Strayer New

BUS 599 Week 7 Discussion Question – Strayer New

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Week 7 Discussion

Important Notes

•           This exercise is considered an academic writing exercise. Quality of response, grammar, and punctuation are considered in your overall grade.

•           This exercise does not require the use of APA format or a cover page.

•           This exercise uses the “Business Plan Financials” MS Excel template. Use the “Business Plan Financials Guide” to assist you in completing the required worksheets. (Both documents are also available in the Course Required Files in Week 1.)

•           It is recommended that students construct their deliverable(s) using MS Word / MS Excel and then attach the document(s) to the discussion thread submission area in Blackboard.

Use the “NAB Company Portfolio” (see: Course Required Files in Week 1) for reference. Provide the following information below.

1.         For year one of your NAB company’s Business Plan, complete the Income Statement, Cash Flow Projections, and Balance Sheet sections from the “Business Plan Financials” MS Excel template (see: Course Required Files in Week 1). Note: Attach the MS Excel worksheet to the discussion thread.

o          Hints: Your marketing costs should already be included as you created your Marketing Budget in Week 4 and those will be filled in automatically.

o          Hints: Use the figures you arrived at in the operations and technology sections of your plan to help fill out your financial forms.

o          Hints: Work through the worksheets in order. The excel worksheets will automatically enter the numbers into your Income Statement.

2.         Develop the following financial sections of your NAB company’s Business Plan. Note: Attach the MS Word document to the discussion thread.

a.         Sources and use of funds

b.         Plan assumptions

c.         Break-even analysis

3.         Provide constructive feedback to at least one (1) classmate’s post.

CIS 562 Week 7 Case Study 2 – Strayer New

CIS 562 Week 7 Case Study 2 – Strayer New

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Case Study 2: Forced Decryption Ruled Unconstitutional

Read the article titled, “U.S. Courts Rule For–and Against–Protecting a Suspect's Hard Drives” located at the following IEEE Spectrum link: http://spectrum.ieee.org/riskfactor/computing/it/us-courts-rule-for-and-against-protecting-a-suspects-hard-drives

Write a three to four (3-4) page paper in which you:
1. Analyze the decision by the 11th U.S. Circuit of Appeals to determine whether you believe the decision rendered was correct or incorrect based on the evidence suspected by the government.
2. Evaluate the effect of this ruling on forensic investigations from a forensics standpoint and determine whether or not you would consider this an “open door” for criminal activity. Justify your answer.
3. Take a position on whether or not you believe technology is moving too fast for the judicial system. Suggest at least two (2) improvements that the courts can make in order to catch up and / or keep up with the advancements in technology issues and crimes.
4. Use at least two (2) quality resources in this assignment. Note: Wikipedia and similar Websites do not qualify as quality resources.

Your assignment must follow these formatting requirements:
• Be typed, double spaced, using Times New Roman font (size 12), with one-inch margins on all sides; citations and references must follow APA or school-specific format. Check with your professor for any additional instructions.
• Include a cover page containing the title of the assignment, the student’s name, the professor’s name, the course title, and the date. The cover page and the reference page are not included in the required assignment page length.

BUS 505 Week 7 Assignment 3 – Strayer New

BUS 505 Week 7 Assignment 3 – Strayer New

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Assignment 3: RFP Response

Due Week 7 and worth 150 points

Respond to a RFP using the same firm and scenario from the first and second assignments.

Write a four to six (4-6) page paper in which you:

1. Review the firm’s organizational structure and then develop a matrix of five (5) roles, responsibilities, and authority for the key members of the captured team to execute the proposal.
2. Read the RFP and then provide the method the company will use to respond to the RFP ambiguity by using a competitive advantage approach.
3. Create a proposal requirement document using Figure 9.1 as an example.
4. Use at least three (3) quality resources in this assignment. Note: Wikipedia and similar Websites do not qualify as quality resources

Your assignment must follow these formatting requirements:

• Be typed, double spaced, using Times New Roman font (size 12), with one-inch margins on all sides; citations and references must follow APA or school-specific format. Check with your professor for any additional instructions.
• Include a cover page containing the title of the assignment, the student’s name, the professor’s name, the course title, and the date. The cover page and the reference page are not included in the required assignment page length.

The specific course learning outcomes associated with this assignment are:

• Analyze government RFPs and plan the development of the firm’s proposals to effectively compete for contract award.
• Develop the elements of proposals to respond to RFPs.

·         Use technology and information resources to research issues in business strategies and proposals.

• Write clearly and concisely about business strategies and proposals using proper writing mechanics.